So remember that thread recently about how bisexuals do exist?


For a refresher:

http://www.nytimes.com/2011/08/23/he...3bisexual.html

The pdf of the actual study can be found here:

http://www.thestranger.com/images/bl...thal_et_al.pdf

Something that stuck out to me was this pair of graphs:



Why are they important, you ask?

The graph on the left shows subjective arousal (i.e. how much you "felt" turned on by watching girls vs guys have same-sex intercourse). The graph on the right shows actual genital arousal. The top line for both is the dominant attraction and the curved bottom line is their less dominant attraction, which obviously varies based on your Kinsey score. As you can see, there is a ***** in the middle of both graphs because bisexual men are somewhat attracted to both sexes. What's striking to me is that heterosexual men (0-1 on the Kinsey scale) reported a subjective arousal of slightly less than 0 (i.e. were "repulsed" ) on the bottom line, which is their less dominant attraction (i.e. men). However, when genital arousal is measured, that bottom line for the 0-1 Kinseys actually starts slightly above 0, indicating heterosexual men were somewhat responsive to gay ****.

Grab the lube and alcohol, ladies; let's go bag us a straight boy!